New Notes

More detailed notes since I have to redo that test.

=Chapters=

16: Rad survey instruments
16.01: Ion chamber (X)
 * See section Chapter 16 below

16.02: Correction factors (X)
 * See section Chapter 16 below

16.03: High-range detectors: Johnson Extender and Eberline RO-7 (X)
 * See section Chapter 16 below

=Vocabulary by chapter and section=

Chapter 3 vocab
Chapter 3.03
 * Mean: Average of all data points in a data set, add up all data points then divide by total data points
 * Median: Center value in a data set, add up center data points and divide by 2
 * Mode: Data point that is most repeated in a data set

Chapter 8 vocab
Chapter 8.01 (X)
 * See section Chapter 8 below

Chapter 10 vocab
Section 10.06 (X)
 * See section Chapters 10/11/12/14 below

=Previous test (X)=

Questions 1/2/6/7/10/15/16/19/21/22/27 (X)
Incorrect Answers #1
 * Question 1: Sealed source to be locking in when not used; Correct answer: D. Rad Material Areas
 * Incorrect answer chosen: B. Shielded casks
 * Other incorrect answers: A. Hazmat storage areas and C. fire-suppression rooms
 * Question 2: Hanford Extremity Dosimeters use TLD phosphors; Correct answer: C. 700
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. 300
 * Other incorrect answers: B. 600 and D. 100
 * Question 6: Minimum entry requirements for Rad Buffer Areas; Correct answer: A. GERT
 * Incorrect answer chosen: B. Rad Worker I and TLD
 * Other incorrect answers: C. None required if escorted and D. Rad Worker II and TLD
 * Question 7: RO-7 Beta Correction Factor; Correct answer: A. 2
 * Incorrect answer chosen: B. 5
 * Other incorrect answers: C. 3 and D. 1
 * Question 10: Which method may not be used by a RCT to field evaluate Radon/Thoron air sample interference; Correct answer: D. Energy emission interference
 * Incorrect answer chosen: B. Use a clean area air sample to document background levels
 * Other incorrect answers: A. measure alpha to beta ratios and C. Measure sample decay rate
 * Question 15: Which instrument needs source checking on only a single scale; Correct answer: C. Ludlum 2360
 * Incorrect answer chosen: B. Ludlum Model 3
 * Other incorrect answers: A. PAM and D. Eberline E-140
 * Question 16: symbol "<D" in a Rad Survey Report means what; Correct answer: C. survey method must be defined on RSR
 * Incorrect answer chosen: B. Approval needed from RC First line manager
 * Other incorrect answers: A. Tech must obtain written approval from RC Project Manager and D. the "<D" value must be circled in red
 * Question 19: An RCT may not do what while supporting radiography; Correct answer: B. Post areas for radiographer
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. Ensure safety of outside personnel
 * Other incorrect answers: C. Verify postings for radiographer and D. Conduct verification surveys for radiographer
 * Question 21: Maxmum run time for a Staplex air sampler according to Annular Kinetic Impactor sampling; Correct answer: B. 20 mins
 * Incorrect answer chosen: D. no time limit
 * Other incorrect answers: A. 10 mins and C. 30 mins
 * Question 22: What kind of instrument can be affected by atmospheric pressure; Correct answer: B. RO-7
 * Incorrect answer chosen: C. Bicron Microrem
 * Other incorrect answers: A. WB Johnson Extender and D. Telescan
 * Question 27: Chamber wall denisty thickness of RO-3B Cutie Pie; Correct answer: D. 400 mg/cm3
 * Incorrect answer chosen: C. 200 mg/cm3
 * Other incorrect answers: A. 7 mg/cm3 and B. 800 mg/cm3

Questions 37/38/39/53/58/60/63/65/66/67/71 (X)
Incorrect Answers #2
 * Question 37: Admin Control Level for a workers lifetime Total Effective Dose; Correct answer: C. N Rem (N is the worker's age in years)
 * Incorrect answer chosen: B. 5xN (N is number of years worked)
 * Other incorrect answers: A. 500 mR and D. 5x(N-18) (N is worker's age in years)
 * Question 38: When clothing contamination is detected with skin contamination; Correct answer: B. Save contaminated clothing for dosimetry analysis
 * Incorrect answer chosen: C. Send person to receive Whole Body Count
 * Other incorrect answers: A. Notify RP Internal Dosimetry and D. Decon clothing using mild soap and water
 * Question 39: Count rate determination resolving time error ; Correct answer: D. increases as count rate increases
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. deceases as count rate increases
 * Other incorrect answers: B. non-existant in GM detectorsand C. not affected by changes in sample count rates
 * Question 53: Max dose rate at any point 2 meters from outer lateral surface vertical plane of vehicle; Correct answer: B. 10 mR/hr
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. <0.5 mR/hr
 * Other incorrect answers: C. 200 mR/hr and D. 1 mR/hr
 * Question 58: Max beta energy of Sr90-Y90; Correct answer: D. 2.281 MeV
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. .546 MeV
 * Other incorrect answers: B. 2186.2 KeV and C. .546 KeV
 * Question 60: GM pancake probe detector window is made of ; Correct answer: A. Mica
 * Incorrect answer chosen: D. Mylar
 * Other incorrect answers: B. Beryllium and C. ZnS plastc
 * Question 63: If a count instrument Chi Square value is unacceptable on a Monthly Surveillance Test, what do you do; Correct answer: C. Perform second Chi Squared test
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. Remove instrument from service and report
 * Other incorrect answers: B. Perform Daily Operation Test and D. Obtain First Line manager approval to use
 * Question 65: Definition of assigned Protection Factor; Correct answer: B. workplace level of protection provided by a class of respirators to a worker
 * Incorrect answer chosen: D. workplace level of protection assigned to a class of respirators prior to mask fit
 * Other incorrect answers: A. Protection level assigned to respirators after modification by workers and C. Hanford assigned value to each respirator type
 * Question 66: Counter error self absorption will ; Correct answer: C. increase as sample loading increases
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. increases as radiation energy increases
 * Other incorrect answers: B. decrease as sample count time increases and D. decrease as sample loading increases
 * Question 67: RCT source control responsibility; Correct answer: B. Perform inventory and integrity checks when required
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. Notify Area Manager of missinger source
 * Other incorrect answers: C. Approve disposition of a leaking source and D. Train Source Custodians on inventory and integrity testing
 * Question 71: Realtime use of a continuous air monitor is requires if; Correct answer: C. unexpected airborne could cause 40+ DAC/hr exposure in 1 week
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. Expected airborne could increase above 12 DAC/hr in 1 week
 * Other incorrect answers: B. Airbone level expected to exceed 10% of a DAC and D. Unexpected airborne could cause 40+ DAC/hr exposure in 1 year

Questions 72/76/79/82/83/90/93/95/97/98/99 (X)
Incorrect Answers #3
 * Question 72: Tennelec 5100W uses two detectors, one measures activity, the other measures ; Correct answer: C. Background
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. Contamination in empty holders
 * Other incorrect answers: B. Gamma energy and D. Calculate net efficiency value
 * Question 76: Electronic personal dosimeters use detectors; Correct answer: B. Semiconductor
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. Scintillation
 * Other incorrect answers: C. BF3 tube and D. Ion chamber
 * Question 79: Characteristic of Ludlum 2360 contamination instrument; Correct answer: B. Speaker has separate tones for alpha nad beta
 * Incorrect answer chosen: D. Fast/slow response time switch
 * Other incorrect answers: A. Not sensitive to extreme temperatures and C. Rad source on instrument for response checks
 * Question 82: What is a Radiation Generating Device; Correct answer: C. Sealed source capable of generating radiation field of 100 mR/hr at 3cm
 * Incorrect answer chosen: B. Source that include fuel elements, nuclear explosivesm and radiothermoelectric generators
 * Other incorrect answers: A. Source with isotope activity value less than sealed source value and D. Source has halflife 30+ days and isotopic values greater than RadCon manuals values
 * Question 83: Characteristics of Alpha-4/5/5A/5S constant air monitors; Correct answer: C. Responds only to alpha radiation
 * Incorrect answer chosen: D. 20-25% efficiency for Alpha energies
 * Other incorrect answers: A. Physical discrimination between natural and manmade alpha and B. Uses scintillation
 * Question 90: 20in valve has bonnet removed, no leaks or liquid, contact reading 150 mR/hr WO and 120 mR/hr WC, what is the extremity shallow dose rate according to chat; Correct answer: D. Shallow dose=180 mRad/hr
 * Incorrect answer chosen: B. Shallow dose=210 mRad/hr
 * Other incorrect answers: A. Shallow dose=760 mRad/hr and C. Shallow dose=1500 mRad/hr
 * Question 93: Chi Square value: 1199, 1303, 1342, 1286, and 1255 cpm; Correct answer: B. 9.04
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. 7.24
 * Other incorrect answers: C. 48.06 and D. 53.74
 * Question 95: Using a chart and a RO-20 determine deep and shallow dose, a cap from a 1.5in pipe reads 320 mR/hr WO and 260 mR/hr WC on contact; Correct answer: C. Deep dose= 6,760 mR/hr and Shallow dose= 9,520 mR/hr
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. Deep dose= 260 mR/hr and Shallow dose= 420 mR/hr
 * Other incorrect answers: B. Deep dose= 6,760 mR/hr and Shallow dose= 21,480 mR/hr and D. Deep dose= 2,080 mR/hr and Shallow dose= 4,480 mR/hr
 * Question 97: CAM alarm set point for beta Sr90 10x10^-8 uCi/ml when a PAPR is needed in an area running for 8hrs at 2.5cm with 12% count efficiency; Correct answer: B. 9x10^7 cpm
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. 1.5x10^6 cpm
 * Other incorrect answers: C. 9x10^8 cpm and D. 9x10^5 cpm
 * Question 98: ; Correct answer: A.
 * Incorrect answer chosen: B.
 * Other incorrect answers: C. and D.
 * Question 99: Median: 51, 42, 22, 34, 44, 12, 23, 22, 31, 41; Correct answer: D. 32.5
 * Incorrect answer chosen: A. 32.2
 * Other incorrect answers: B. 28 and C. 22

Questions 3/4/5/8/9/11/12/13/14/17/18 (X)
Correct Answers #1
 * Question 3: What would require the performance of a Monthly Surveillance Test; Correct/chosen answer: A. Instrument had maintenance performed
 * Incorrect answers: B. High activity samples were counted, C. Loss of power to count instrument, and D. Formal revisions to count procedure
 * Question 4: What is a part of the "whole body" definition; Correct/chosen answer: C. Arms above and including elbows
 * Incorrect answers: A. Legs above excluding knee, B. Trunk of body excluding head, and D. Arms above excluding elbow
 * Question 5: ; Correct/chosen answer: C. Worker efficiency
 * Incorrect answers: A. Worker qualifications, B. Worker comfort, and D. Temperature
 * Question 8: "Downwind" means related to an air sampler; Correct/chosen answer: C. Airflow pattern is moving from rad source to air sampler
 * Incorrect answers: A. Airflow pattern is moving from rad source and away from air sampler, B. Air sample is taken only in emergency conditions, and D. Air sample is located outside of 3 meters from contam source and is based on room airflow patterns
 * Question 9: Purpose of using count statistics in sample analysis; Correct/chosen answer: C. Predict inherent uncertainty associated with measure
 * Incorrect answers: A. Eliminate all errors in count operations, B. Factor out human error in sample counts, and D. correct variants between sample in matching circumstances
 * Question 11: ; Correct/chosen answer: D. Smooth side out
 * Incorrect answers: A. Rough side out, B. Orientation doesn't matter, and C. Depends upon filter
 * Question 12: Large area wipe is used to look for contamination; Correct/chosen answer: D. Removable
 * Incorrect answers: A. Transferable, B. Total, and C. Fixed
 * Question 13: ; Correct/chosen answer: B. Very High Rad Area
 * Incorrect answers: A. Exclusion Area, C. High Rad Area, and D. Rad Area
 * Question 14: ; Correct/chosen answer: B. Engineering
 * Incorrect answers: A. Management, C. Procedural, and D. Administrative
 * Question 17: Section: Critical is route taken by a radionuclide from point of release until entrance to the human body; Correct/chosen answer: C. Pathway
 * Incorrect answers: A. Mass, B. Element, and D. Geometry
 * Question 18: If 2000 dpm/100 cm2 beta/gamma contamination is detected, what kind of area should be posted; Correct/chosen answer: C. Contam Area
 * Incorrect answers: A. Radiological Buffer Area, B. Soil Contam Area, and D. High Contam Area

Questions 20/23/24/25/26/28/29/30/31/32/33 (X)
Correct Answers #2
 * Question 20: Yearly limit for unmonitored personnel exposure in a Radiological Buffer Area; Correct/chosen answer: A. <100 mR/year
 * Incorrect answers: B. <1 mR/year, C. <5 mR/hr, and D. <100 uR/hr
 * Question 23: Purpose of control chart for count instruments; Correct/chosen answer: D. Help identify problems in need of correction
 * Incorrect answers: A. Document all repair and calibrations made to instrument, B. Track cost of operating field count instrument, and C. Log field results for all samples counted
 * Question 24: Which is not an example of basic contamination control; Correct/chosen answer: A. Ensure personnel have proper dosimetry for RCA
 * Incorrect answers: B. Wrap tools and equipment before removal from Contam Areas, C. Provide protective clothing to prevent skin contamination, and D. Provide tents or huts to control radioactive containments
 * Question 25: Which kind of personnel would require a primary dosimeter; Correct/chosen answer: A. Rad worker getting 100 mR annual external whole body dose
 * Incorrect answers: B. Rad worker getting 5R annual external eye lens dose, C. Declared pregnant worker getting 25 mR embryo dose, and D. Public members getting 10 mR annual external whole body dose
 * Question 26: When documenting air sample of Radiological Survey Report, the RCT must; Correct/chosen answer: A. Identify air sample as breath zone or general air
 * Incorrect answers: B. Include air sample time on/off on RSR continuation sheet, C. Record serial number of air sampler on RSR, and D. Place @ symbol on RSR at air sample location
 * Question 28: Hanford portable radios are used for; Correct/chosen answer: A. Provide mobile point-to-point communication
 * Incorrect answers: B. Make general announcements to facility, C. Announce emergency info to personnel, and D. Notify personnel of overtime
 * Question 29: If initial integrity test of sealed source indicate removable contam above allowed limits, RCT should do what; Correct/chosen answer: A. Control source in manner to minimize contam spread
 * Incorrect answers: B. Dispose of source as rad waste, C. Send source o MSA for further evaluation, and D. Notify source handlers of leak so that can make needed notifications
 * Question 30: Airborne Radioactivity Areas will be posted when airborne concentration is of DAC value; Correct/chosen answer: A. +20%
 * Incorrect answers: B. +2%, C. +0.2%, and D. <10%
 * Question 31: Technical swipes taken with the "S" technique covers how much length; Correct/chosen answer: A. 16in
 * Incorrect answers: B. 10cm, C. 100cm, and D. 4in
 * Question 32: Not a factor for choosing contamination monitoring equipment; Correct/chosen answer: D. Personal preference
 * Incorrect answers: A. Procedure requirements, B. Enviro conditions, and C. Background
 * Question 33: Realtime continuous air monitoring is needed where; Correct/chosen answer: A. Unexpected increase cause airborne greater than 40 DAC/hr per week
 * Incorrect answers: B. Working in areas with known rad material installed, C. Unexpected increase in airborne above RadCon levels, and D. Work in areas with levels greater than High Contam Areas

Questions 34/35/36/40/41/42/43/44/45/46/47 (X)
Correct Answers #3
 * Question 34: Thermo EPD measures what kind of radiation; Correct/chosen answer: B. Beta/gamma
 * Incorrect answers: A. Gamma, C. Beta, and D. Alpha/beta/gamma
 * Question 35: RCT prejob brief should include; Correct/chosen answer: C. How job can affect rad conditions
 * Incorrect answers: A. Assess total cost of job, B. Work group seniority levels, and D. All worker's physical conditions
 * Question 36: Supplemental dosimeters would be required in what areas; Correct/chosen answer: C. High Rad Area
 * Incorrect answers: A. Airborne Rad Area, B. High Contam Area, and D. Rad Area
 * Question 40: Abnormal dosimeter readings shall be reported to; Correct/chosen answer: A. Radiological Control
 * Incorrect answers: B. Mission Support Alliance dosimetry dept., C. DOE-RL dosimetry, and D. Instrument vendor
 * Question 41: RCT shall accomplish this task before job starts; Correct/chosen answer: B. Obtain adequate survey info for making job decisions
 * Incorrect answers: A. Obtain needed dosimetry for all workers, C. Approve work package for Rad Control Org, and D. Verify qualifications of all workers on job
 * Question 42: Repeating instructions/info is done to ensure; Correct/chosen answer: A. Communications are understood
 * Incorrect answers: B. Proficiency in communications, C. FCC regulation compliance, and D. Proper use of standard terminology
 * Question 43: Best type of containment on a high contamination job with heavy traffic; Correct/chosen answer: D. Tent with HEPA ventilation
 * Incorrect answers: A. Catch containment placed around work area, B. Standard work area HEPA blower, and C. No containment needed, just use barriers and postings
 * Question 44: Eberline Model HFM-6 personnel monitors use type of detector; Correct/chosen answer: D. Proportional
 * Incorrect answers: A. Ion chamber, B. Geiger-Mueller, and C. Scintillation
 * Question 45: Once work type and contam levels are knwo, what other factors determine protective clothing are needed; Correct/chosen answer: A. Contamination type
 * Incorrect answers: B. Dose rate, C. Job site transuranic levels, and D. Job site worker numbers
 * Question 46: RCT should ensure packing material is removed before entering Contamination Area to reduce; Correct/chosen answer: B. Rad wast
 * Incorrect answers: A. Man-power, C. ALARA, and D. Shielding
 * Question 47: Factor that could affect accuracy of airborne radioactivity measurement; Correct/chosen answer: B. Improper recording of info on air sample envelope
 * Incorrect answers: A. Sample is not counted within 30mins, C. Sample media is properly installed, and D. Too many workers in area

Questions 48/49/50/51/52/54/55/56/57/59/61 (X)
Correct Answers #4
 * Question 48: PAM probe is mainly used to look for radiation; Correct/chosen answer: D. Alpha
 * Incorrect answers: A. Beta/gamma, B. Alpha/gamma, and C. Neutron
 * Question 49: RO-20 mylar density thickness; Correct/chosen answer: B. 7 mg/cm2
 * Incorrect answers: A. 400 mg/cm2, C. 300 mg/cm2, and D. 0.85 mg/cm2
 * Question 50: When shipping/receiving rad material, if limits are exceeded, first thing to do; Correct/chosen answer: B. Control vehicle access and notify manager
 * Incorrect answers: A. Alert count room that hot samples are coming, C. Call Ops manager for facility and post area, and D. Accept shipment, don protective clothing, evacuate unneeded personnel
 * Question 51: RCT/HPT job coverage purpose; Correct/chosen answer: C. Keep rad exposure ALARA
 * Incorrect answers: A. Keep area contamination free, B. Increase workers in area, and D. Increase RadCon visibility
 * Question 52: What shall be considered when selecting respirator for a job; Correct/chosen answer: B. Amount of time in respirator
 * Incorrect answers: A. Cleaning solution availability, C. Person's physical characteristics, and D. First aid station location
 * Question 54: Definition of standard deviation; Correct/chosen answer: B.
 * Incorrect answers: A. Average data value compared to total point value, C. Measure of how closely grouped data points are compared to the mode, and D. Total value of data points compared to average value
 * Question 55: RCT reports to what Incident Command Post position; Correct/chosen answer: A. Radiological Hazards Assessor
 * Incorrect answers: B. ICP Hazards Communicator, C. Incident Commander, and D. Facility Ops Specialist
 * Question 56: To open rad material package outside RCA, obtain permission from; Correct/chosen answer: C. RadCon First Line Manager
 * Incorrect answers: A. RadCon Lead Tech, B. Ops First Line Manager, and D. Facility Radioactive Material Shipper
 * Question 57: Referring to Beta energy curve provided, determine range of 200 KeV Beta particle; Correct/chosen answer: A. 40 mg/cm2
 * Incorrect answers: B. 20 mg/cm2, C. 13 mg/cm2, and D. 900 mg/cm2
 * Question 59: Basic goal of Contam control program; Correct/chosen answer: D. Minimize contam areas and keep contam levels ALARA
 * Incorrect answers: A. Maintain contam free workplace, B. Prevent formation of radiological contamination on site, and C. Ensure exposure of personnel is below regulation limits
 * Question 61: RCT/HPT can stop work in a Radiological Area if; Correct/chosen answer: B. Gen area rad level increase from 45 mR/hr to 115 mR/hr in a Rad Area
 * Incorrect answers: A. Gen area rad level increase from 12 mR/hr to 20 mR/hr in a Rad Area, C. Poor survey techniques being used by workers when exiting Contam Area, and D. Loose beta contam increases from 2500 dpm/cm2 to 4000 dpm/cm2 in a Contam Area

Questions 62/64/68/69/70/73/74/75/77/78/80 (X)
Correct Answers #5
 * Question 62: 2 types of direct contamination surveys; Correct/chosen answer: A. Scanning and static
 * Incorrect answers: B. Scanning and swiping, C. Transferable and scanning, and D. Direct and static
 * Question 64: Who is responsible for radiological control functions during an emergency event; Correct/chosen answer: D. Radiological Hazard Assessor
 * Incorrect answers: A. Building Emergency Director, B. Ops Section Chief, and C. Incident Commander
 * Question 68: Which does not require a radiological receipt survey; Correct/chosen answer: D. Package transported on DOE site under continuous observation by DOE employee or contractor with proper certifications
 * Incorrect answers: A. Package is notable damaged, B. Package has Radioactive White 1 or Yellow 2 or 3 label, and C. Package was transported as Low Specific Activity on exclusive use vehicle
 * Question 69: What type of detector is a HPGe detector; Correct/chosen answer: D. Semiconductor
 * Incorrect answers: A. Gas filled, B. Scintillation, and C. Proportional
 * Question 70: Precaution when conducting skin decontamination; Correct/chosen answer: D. Prevent spread to unaffected areas
 * Incorrect answers: A. Dispose of all decon water in a rad control drain system, B. Have med personnel present for face decon, and C. Use mild soap on hands and feet
 * Question 73: Max range of a WB Johnson Extender on high scale; Correct/chosen answer: D. 1000 R/hr
 * Incorrect answers: A. 1000 mR/hr, B. 5000 mR/hr, and C. 500 R/hr
 * Question 74: When working in radiological areas, workers shall; Correct/chosen answer: D. Minimize contamination contact
 * Incorrect answers: A. Survey tools out of contam areas, B. Only report skin break injuries, and C. Escort injured personnel to aid stations
 * Question 75: According to Rad Control Manual, rad control records should; Correct/chosen answer: C. be high quality because they may be used in future
 * Incorrect answers: A. Initialed by all workers on job, B. Approved by RadCon management before post-job briefing, and D. Use units of Becquerel, Gray, or Sievert
 * Question 77: Which affects RCT choice of portable air sample; Correct/chosen answer: D. Type and duration of job
 * Incorrect answers: A. Stopping power of radiation, B. Temperature outside of area, and C. Ambient air pressure
 * Question 78: Diethylene Triamene Pentaacetic Acid is used to; Correct/chosen answer: A. Prevent deposition of heavy metals in body
 * Incorrect answers: B. Saturate organs with non-radioactive isotopes to prevent deposition, C. Protect kidneys from uranium poisoning, and D. Replenish trace minerals lost during internal contam treatment
 * Question 80: When making pen and ink corrections Rad Work Survey; Correct/chosen answer: A. Initial and date changes
 * Incorrect answers: B. Inform supervisors of revisions, C. Highlight changes to identify them, and D. Use only red ink to identify changes

Questions 81/84/85/86/87/88/89/91/92/94/96/100 (X)
Correct Answers #6
 * Question 81: Needed to determine dose estimates for skin contamination; Correct/chosen answer: A. Length of time skin was exposed
 * Incorrect answers: B. Phone number of Rad Engineer doing assessment, C. Individual health condition, and D. Worker's physical state during decon process
 * Question 84: Best phone number for med assistance using an on-site landline; Correct/chosen answer: B. 911
 * Incorrect answers: A. 509-373-0911, C. 509-373-3800, and D. 509-373-3454
 * Question 85: Determine decision level: Rb=2 cpm, Tb=20min, Tg=1min; Correct/chosen answer: A. 2.4 cpm
 * Incorrect answers: B. 127 cpm, C. 5.8 cpm, and D. 11 cpm
 * Question 86: Instrument count data on calibration source is 2700 net cpm and source has 9250 dpm, calculate instrument efficiency; Correct/chosen answer: D. 29.2%
 * Incorrect answers: A. 0.292%, B. 3.4%, and C. 34%
 * Question 87: Standard deviation: 29, 28, 33, 32, 27, 23, 31, 31, 30, 32, 29, 33, 25; Correct/chosen answer: D. 3.07
 * Incorrect answers: A. 5.78, B. 6.02, and C. 2.95
 * Question 88: Count instrument reads 1145 gross counts after 15mins and source is checked with 7802 Co80 source, source check is 3345 gross counts over 2min count, determine net source count rate; Correct/chosen answer: A. 1596 cpm
 * Incorrect answers: B. 444 cpm, C. 1673 cpm, and D. 1100 cpm
 * Question 89: Determine mode: 51, 42, 22, 34, 44, 12, 23, 22, 31, 41; Correct/chosen answer: C. 22
 * Incorrect answers: A. 32.2, B. 32.5, and D. 222228
 * Question 91: count instrument read 1145 count over 15mins background and source check is 7802 Co50 source, determine background count rate; Correct/chosen answer: C. 76 cpm
 * Incorrect answers: A. 444 cpm, B. 1130 cpm, and D. 1145 cpm
 * Question 92: Calculate mean: 1278, 1683, 1351, 1563, and 1425 cpm; Correct/chosen answer: D. 1351 cpm
 * Incorrect answers: A. 1425 cpm, B. 1460 cpm, and C. 1563 cpm
 * Question 94: 100 cm2 smear displays 1850 gross count after 5mins, background is 175 gross counts over 5 mins, calculate range of error at 95% confidence level; Correct/chosen answer: C. 335 +/- 17.6 cpm
 * Incorrect answers: A. 335 +/- 9 cpm, B. 370 +/- 9 cpm, and D. 370 +/- 17.6 cpm
 * Question 96: Minimum Detectable Activity of a sample: Background 2 cpm, gross count time 5min, background count time 5 mins, count efficiency 31%; Correct/chosen answer: A. 11.24 dpm
 * Incorrect answers: B. 33.2 dpm, C. 0.71 dpm, and D. 0.11 dpm
 * Question 100: Calculate confidence level with 95% confidence level: 29, 28, 33, 32, 27, 23, 31, 31, 30, 32, 29, 33, 25; Correct/chosen answer: D. 23.44-35.48
 * Incorrect answers: A. 23.63-35.2, B. 24.98-37.02, and C. 25.22-36.78

=Sections that I need to study more=

Chapters 1/3
Section 1.11 (X)
 * Symbol "<D" means less than detectable and survey method used shall be defined in the RSR
 * Scanning survey: frisk speed (inch/sec), distance from item, % of item surveyed, no counts above background
 * Static survey: # of static measurements, Distance from items (inches), Count time (seconds), no counts above background, % of items surveyed
 * Swipe/smear: Document analysis per Smear samples and Analyzing air forms
 * Large area wipe survey: Count time (seconds) or survey speed (inch/sec), distance from sample (inch or cm), no count above background, % of item smeared

Section 3.01
 * General source of error: Self-absorption, backscatter, resolving, geometry, random decay

Section 3.04 (X)
 * 1347, 1397, 1447, 1360, 1424, 1371, 1402, 1361, 1347, 1392
 * Mode: 1347 is the mode, it is the only value that is repeated
 * Median: arrange values in numerical order, add middle points and divide by 2, 1381.5
 * Mean: total value=13,848 and 10 data points total, 1384.8

Section 3.08 (X)
 * X^2=10,131.60/1384.8=7.32
 * Chi square formula: X^2=((sample count value)-(mean value))^2/(mean value)
 * X^2=sample chi square value
 * Xi=sample counts for data points
 * /X=mean value

Section 3.15 (X)
 * Corrective actions if a deficiency is noted during Monthly Surveillance Tests or Daily Source Check of a count instrument
 * Chi square test
 * 99.7% confidence level of 5.6-42.95
 * If X^2 outside of acceptable limits first time, repeat test a second time
 * If failed second time, repeat test with another source/count interval combo
 * Or remove from service and return to PNNL for repair and/or calibration
 * Physical deficiencies
 * If instrument is found broken/damaged/defective/out of calibration
 * Remove from service with Instrument service tag and return to PNNL for repair and/or calibration
 * If calibration sticker is missing, remove from service and call PNNL for replacement sticker
 * Loose cable or power cord, reconnect and verify instrument still working correctly
 * Confidence interval check
 * Verify daily value within corresonding response limits (between Lower Control Limit and Upper Control Limit)
 * If test is failed, repeat test with same instruments
 * If second test is failed, repeat test with different instruments or remove from service
 * If second instrument is outside of acceptable limits, remove instrument from service

Chapter 4
Section 4.03

Section 4.07

Section 4.08 (X)
 * Electronic dosimeter
 * General Hanford types: SAIC PD-3, Thermo EPD, MGP DMC 2000
 * SAI PD-3: measures photons and provides dose/dose rate measurement, chirp, and staytime alarms
 * Wall thickness: +1100 mc/cm3
 * Long battery and calibration life, easy computer access, dose history
 * Uses Geiger-Mueller tube, dose from 2 uR to 999 R
 * Dosimeter not immersion proof, decon carefully with damp cloth
 * Do not replace battery while in use
 * Pencil dosimeter
 * Primarily for emergency use, included in many emergency kits
 * Can be used if facility runs out of electronic dosimeters
 * Direct reading dosimeter is an ion chamber
 * Requires 180 volts applied across 2 surfaces
 * Detect gamma/x-rays with energies above 80 eV
 * Newer versions can detect some beta and lower energy gammas <90 eV
 * Lower energy pencils used in plutonium facilities

Chapters 6/7
Section 6.07

Section 6.15

Section 6.16

Section 6.17

Section 7.02

Chapter 8 (X)
Section 8.01 (X)
 * Sealed radioactive source: Source made/obtained/retained for purpose of utilizing its' radiation, generates known quantity of rad material sealed firmly within, does not include reactor fuel elements, nuclear explosive devices, or radiothermoelectric generators
 * Accountable sealed rad source: Has half-life of 30 or more days and isotopic activity greater than value provided on RadCon Manual appendix
 * Exempt-quantity sealed rad source: Has less isotopic activity than value provided by RadCon Manual and is not considered a consumer product
 * Radiation Generating Device: Device that produces ionizing radiation, includes certain sealed sources, generating +100 mR/hr at 30cm, small particle accelerators, used for things such as radiography, and electron generating devices that produce x-rays

Section 8.02 (X)
 * RCT radioactive source responsibilities
 * Follow general source handling precautions in procedures
 * Perform receipt survey
 * Use Rad Source checkout log sheet for check in/out
 * Perform inventory and integrity testing when directed by Source Custodian
 * Take appropriate actions if source is damaged or leaking
 * Document integrity test results

Section 8.04 (X)
 * Rad source storage requirements
 * Rooms or cabinets are secured and properly posted
 * Safe from fire ad free of flammables
 * Isolated from generally occupied areas
 * Located in RCAs
 * Closest approach does not exceed 0.5 mR dos
 * When not in use, sources are stored and secured in established Rad Material Area and locked to prevent access

Chapters 10/11/12/14 (X)
Section 10.06 (X)
 * 6 areas acknowledged in 10 CFR 835
 * Rad/High Rad/Very High Rad Areas
 * Airborne Radioactivity Areas
 * Contam/High Contam Areas
 * Radiologically Controlled Area: Most common area type, personnel not expected to exceed 01.R TED annual, required GERT
 * Radiological Buffer Area: Establish within RCA to provide secondary boundaries to limits contamination and dosage spread, unmonitored personnel expect <100 mR/year, adjected to CA/HCA/ARA exits, requires GERT with escort or Rad Worker I unescorted, personal dosimeters, hand and foot minimum survey required to exited some areas
 * Radiation Area: Post at +5 mR/hr at 30cm up to 100 mR/hr at 30cm, requires GERT escorted or Rad Worker I unescorted, Worker signature on RWP, personal dosimeter
 * High Radiation Area: Post +100 mR/hr at 30cm up to 500/hr Rad at 1 meter, requires Rad Worker II or Rad Worker I with HRA/VHRA training, Worker sign RWP, Personal and supplemental dosimeters, pre-job brief, physical access controls/barriers
 * Very High Radiation Area: Post at +500 Rad/hr at 1 meter, same as HRA, requires source to be secured or shielded and verified to ensure radiation field is terminated
 * Hot Spot: Post if contact rad levels +100 mR/hr and +5x greater than general dose rate, no special entry requirements
 * Contamination Area: Exit requirements wole body survey, entry requires RWP and personal dosimeter, posted when 1000 dpm/100 cm2 smearable, up to 100x basic
 * High Contamination Area: +100x greater contamination levels than normal Contam Area, requires RWP, dosimeter, Respiratory Protection, follow RWP for exit requirements
 * Airborne Radioactivity Area: Post if airborne radioactivity exceeds natural background or likely to exceed DC limit or if unprotected worker exceeds 12 DAC/hr per week, RWP/dosimeter/possible Respiratory Protection required
 * Radioactive Material Area: Post when rad material containers present and likely to exceed limits of original posting, requires Rad Worker I or GERT with escort, personal dosimeter
 * Underground Radioactive Material Area: Area where rad material can be detected 15cm or more below ground surface, mostly used for postings outdoor, requires contact with RadCon Org before excavation, dosimeter, exit survey, protective clothing needed determined by RWP
 * Fixed Contamination Area: Area where rad material cannot be removed by non-destructive methods, entrance to FCA should be posted or marker appropriately, no entry requirements
 * Soil Contamination Area: Area where rad material exists within 15cm of ground surface, direct contam reading exceeds total decon levels, contact RadCon prior to excavation, RWP required

Section 11.14 (X)
 * While supporting Radiography, an RCT may
 * Use radiographic devices and related handling tools
 * Act as a radiographer or radiographer assistant
 * Conduct radiographer source survey
 * Post areas for the radiographer
 * While supporting Radiography, an RCT may not
 * Verify postings
 * Ensure safety of personnel not associated with radiographic operation

Section 12.03 (X)
 * Type of radiation and contamination surveys and limits
 * Package may not exceed 200 mR/hr external dose and transport index does not exceed 10
 * If limits are exceeded, package must transport with exclusive use shipment
 * 200 mR/hr external surface dose
 * 1 R/hr if these conditions are met: Use closed transport vehicle, package is secured inside vehicle, and no loading/unloading happens between start and end of transport operations
 * May not exceed 200 mR/hr on outside of vehicle
 * 10 mR/hr at any point 2 meters from outside surfaces of vehicle
 * 2 mR/hr in any normally occupied space, excludes carriers under federal or state RP program with dosimeters
 * Package Surveys
 * Rad survey: Measure contact levels on package surface and at 1 meter from surface, use to establish Transport Index
 * Contam survey: Smear surface of package for removable contamination, RadCon Manuals include acceptable limits
 * Surveys are required to use "Limited Quantity" label
 * Transport Vehicle Surveys
 * Should be performed when exclusive use vehicle arrives at site to ensure limits not exceeded
 * Contam survey: perform if vehicle has transported class 7 Rad material, limits established according to site
 * Outgoing vehicle contam survey: Check exiting vehicle, specifically exclusive use vehicles, assume secured package is within acceptable limits

Section 14.04 (X)
 * Actions when clothing contam detected
 * Contain/remove gross contam areas by tape-press or cutting area out and bagging contam, resurvey after each cleaning attempt
 * Carefully remove contaminated items if it cannot be deconned, check for skin contam and possible uptake
 * Save contaminated item for dosimetry analysis
 * Perform personnel whole body survey after removal of contaminated clothing to determine that there is no skin contamination
 * Cautions
 * Jewelry/watches/prosthetics decan only with owner's consent
 * Use of liquids on permeable materials can cause contam spread
 * Soap and water should not be used on dry-clean only items without owner's consent

Chapter 16
Section 16.01 (X)
 * Specifications for ion chambers
 * Detector: Hanford RO-3B Cutie Pie (CP) and Black Widow (BWCP)
 * Detector type: Phenolic resin tube with a thin film on front end (beta window), air filled
 * Black Widow has alpha and beta conversion chart for converting dose rate readings to alpha or corrected beta dpm or mRad beta
 * Instrument operating range: RO-3B 0-5000 mR/hr, BWCP 0-500 R/hr
 * CP ranges, 0-5/50/500/5000 mR/hr, BWCP 0.0.5/5/50/500 R/hr
 * Detector shielding/window: CP: walls/beta shields 400 mg/cm2, BWC inn alpha shield 0.86 mg/cm2
 * Rad types detected: closed window: photon +10 keV and beta +1 meV, open window: +65 keV beta and photons in keV range, mg/cm2 window blocks alpha with less than 6 MeV, CP unresponsive to alpha, BWCP responds to alpha with window open, no neutron responses
 * Operator-adjustable controls: Range switch with Off/zero/batt positions
 * Zero knob electronically zeroes meter, Batt 1/2/3 checks battery condition
 * Specific limitations/characteristics: Too long to type
 * Air filled, very sensitive to temperature and pressure
 * Specifications Eberline RO-20
 * Detector type: Air-filled portable ion chamber, beta and photon radiation, chamber 208 cm3, detector 1000 mg/cm2
 * Instrument operating range: 0-5/50/500 mR/hr or 5/50 R/hr
 * Detector shielding/window: Sliding window with 1000mg/cm2, fixed window with 7mg/cm2
 * Rad types detected: Gamma/x-ray//beta, flat response 40 keV to 1.2 meV, open window beta +65keV
 * Operator-adjustable controls: Range switch with Off/zero/batt positions
 * Zero knob electronically zeroes meter, Batt 1/2/3 checks battery condition
 * Specific limitations/characteristics
 * Switching from R/hr to mR/hr may cause transient noise deflection, let needle settle
 * Air filled, sensitive to pressure changes, no temperature correction needed
 * RO-20/RO-20AA, sensitive to sudden temperature changes, operating range -40 to 140 Fahrenheit
 * Do not use in fields exceeding instrument range, will not damage electronics

Section 16.02 (X)
 * Correction factors needed according to source size and distance from detector, causing shift in detection
 * Distance and source size compared to detector, source-detector geometry

Section 16.03 (X)
 * Specifications for high-range instruments
 * Detector: Johnson Extender
 * Types: Two Geiger-Mueller tubes at end of telepole
 * Instrument operating range: Yellow 0-1/10/100/1K R, White 0-1000 uR/10/100 mR
 * Detector shielding: N/A
 * Detector window: N/A
 * Rad types detected: Gamma, can do beta/low gamma when end cap removed
 * Operator-adjustable controls: Range switch with Off and Bat Chk, On/Off light anel switch
 * Specific limitations/characteristics
 * Do not use in areas exceeding instrument range
 * Cover scope and telescope in inclement weather
 * Do not use for personnel dose rates less than <5 R/hr, unless RC supervision approval
 * Do not extend detector rapidly, pressure diff. can cause detector damage
 * Not affected by temp. shocks
 * Detector: Eberline RO-7
 * Type: Air-vented ion chamber
 * RO-7LD: Low range gamma only, volume 50cm3, 5 cm diameter, 10.2 cm long
 * RO-7BM: Mid range beta/gamma, beta window, volume 7 cm3, 5 cm diameter and long
 * RO-7BH: High range beta/gamma, beta window 7cm3, 5 cm diameter and long
 * Correction factors: Non-penetrating exposure rate (WO-WC)x2, Non-contact dose rates do not require geometry correction factor, no close geometry corrections have been developed
 * RO-7 operated in "current" mode of operation
 * Instrument operating range: RO-7LD 1 mR/hr-1.999 R/hr, RO-7BM 100 mR/hr-199.9 R/hr, RO-7BH 10 R/hr-19999 R/hr
 * Detector shielding: Phenolic liner and aluminum housing
 * Detector window: RO-7-BM/BH 7mg/cm2 Mylar window, Lucite cap beta window 1000 mg/cm2 end/200 mg/cm2 side, chamber wall 800 mg/cm2
 * Rad types detected: RO-7LD gamma/x-ray only, RO-7-BM/BH gamma/x-ray/beta, standard correction of2 beta:1 gamma
 * Lucite cover off: +8 keV, on face: +25 keV, on side: +50 keV, BM/BH beta: +200 keV
 * Operator-adjustable controls: On/off switch only, instrument identifies detector, Zero know zeroes out LCD
 * Specific limitations/characteristics: 5 seconds to 90% of final reading
 * Air vented detector, temperature and pressure affect reading
 * +/- 10% -20-160 Fahrenheit
 * Keep dry and out of high humidity, no desiccant pack
 * Over-ranging may damage electronics
 * 15 of 60 ft flex cable,2 or 5 ft rigid extension, 60 ft stainless steel underwater housing cable

Section 16.06
 * Factors affecting portable rad survey instrument selection
 * Data type required: external rad survey (R/hr or mR/hr) vs. contam monitor (cpm or dpm)
 * Identify appropriate instrument for external rad surveys

Chapters 17/18/19
Section 17.02

Section 17.03

Section 18.03

Section 18.07

Section 19.02